Hey Y'all English Know-it-alls
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Join Date: Feb 2006
Thursday, December 13, 2012 at 10:52PM
Explain for me, E. I cannot readily think of "I seen" being proper in any context.
"I seen" isn't incorrect per se. It's just not in the dialect of the ruling class, which is one version of English among many (I would guess hundreds). In a lot of versions of English, "I seen" is correct, while "X saw" and "X had/have seen" are wrong. If "I seen" is intrinsically improper because it's not part of Standard English, then Spanish is intrinsically improper as well.