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Old 12-13-2012, 11:11 PM   #49
Fifi.G
 
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Originally Posted by kayb View Post
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Originally Posted by Eilonwy View Post
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Originally Posted by kayb View Post
Explain for me, E. I cannot readily think of "I seen" being proper in any context.
"I seen" isn't incorrect per se. It's just not in the dialect of the ruling class, which is one version of English among many (I would guess hundreds). In a lot of versions of English, "I seen" is correct, while "X saw" and "X had/have seen" are wrong. If "I seen" is intrinsically improper because it's not part of Standard English, then Spanish is intrinsically improper as well.
OK. My English teachers would freak out if I ever said "I seen."
I personally love the Urban Dictionary definition

http://m.urbandictionary.com/#define?term=I%20seen

^and the midwest is not the only place 'I seen' is widely used.

Throw out some oldies but goodies at your teacher and when he/she freaks ask him/her why Shakespeare is still considered acceptable. Hardy har.

Really, though. It is roots of the language, mixed with different dialects.
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Last edited by Fifi.G; 12-13-2012 at 11:13 PM.
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