02-26-2009, 04:55 PM
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#42
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Join Date: Mar 2008
Posts: 4,898
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I didn't mean it that way. I"m just saying that if he isn't faithful, she isn't negligent because she assumes he's faithful...she might be naive, but not negligent with her baby. Does that make sense? I should've clarified it more. I assume my husband is faithful, but I do not know for 100 percent. For all practical purposes, it's okay that I don't know for 100 percent, because I assume it and that's okay with me. However, if a mother ends up being infected and passes it to the baby...she's likely to be more of the naive type than the negligent type, if she really believed this couldn't happen to her.
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